Digg It button for blogger

Written on 1:49 AM by ปั้มเงิน Cookie Run

Are you a digger ? If so then you might want to embed a simple and nice looking digg it button next to your post.

First of all you have to login to your blogger blog admin panel, then select template / edit html, mark Expand Widget Templates and copy paste the whole html code in a plain text editor like notepad. You might consider to make a template backup if something goes terrible wrong :).

Now find the following line of code

<p><data:post.body/></p>
and place this on the next line :
<p>

<!-- DIGG -->
<div style='float:right; margin-left:10px;'>
<script type='text/javascript'>
digg_url = '<data:post.url/>';
</script>
<script src='http://digg.com/tools/diggthis.js' type='text/javascript'/>
</div>
<data:post.body/>
</p>

Thats all folks, copy and paste the html back to your html view and save

Credit Link Blogger Templates

Posted in น่าสนใจ | 0 ความคิดเห็น

Add a "Save as PDF" Button to your Blog

Written on 2:47 PM by ปั้มเงิน Cookie Run

Want site visitors to print or download your blog posts as PDF documents ?

PDF Online, the free PDF conversion service that helps you create PDF files of your Microsoft Office documents, has released a new online tool for converting HTML web pages to PDFs.

Here's how the new service works - bloggers add a small Javascript snippet in the blog templates, visitors can click the "Save Page as PDF" button and the current web page will be rendered as a PDF document.

Real Example - Print Google.com as PDF

When the SavePageAsPDF service goes live officially, you will be able to track all the PDF conversion activities on your website helping you visualize the most popular content on your blog.

More on the service at pdfonline.com/ and pdfonline.blogspot.com/.

This will be in direct competition with HP Print Widget that also allow printing blog posts and RSS feeds as PDF documents.

Related: CSS for Printer Friendly Web Pages

Update: You can directly embed the URLs in your blog posts without using any javascript. Use the following values for cURL instead of encodeURIComponent(document.location.href)

Classic Blogger - <$BlogItemPermalinkURL$>
Blogger XML Template - data:post.url

Posted in น่าสนใจ | 0 ความคิดเห็น

การทำ related posts

Written on 2:36 PM by ปั้มเงิน Cookie Run

This widget or hack call it how you like is often requested by fellow bloggers.

Here is the tutorial how to install related posts based on labels underneath your blog posts.

First of all you must know that it won`˙t work if your labels use any reserved url characters.

Go to templates edit html and click on expand widget templates and copy the whole code inside a plain text editor like notepad. You might consider backing up your template if something runs wrong.

Now paste the following in the page header :

<script type="text/javascript">
//<![CDATA[
var relatedTitles = new Array();
var relatedTitlesNum = 0;
var relatedUrls = new Array();
function related_results_labels(json) {
for (var i = 0; i < json.feed.entry.length; i++) {
var entry = json.feed.entry[i];
relatedTitles[relatedTitlesNum] = entry.title.$t;
for (var k = 0; k < entry.link.length; k++) {
if (entry.link[k].rel == 'alternate') {
relatedUrls[relatedTitlesNum] = entry.link[k].href;
relatedTitlesNum++;
break;
}
}
}
}
function removeRelatedDuplicates() {
var tmp = new Array(0);
var tmp2 = new Array(0);
for(var i = 0; i < relatedUrls.length; i++) {
if(!contains(tmp, relatedUrls[i])) {
tmp.length += 1;
tmp[tmp.length - 1] = relatedUrls[i];
tmp2.length += 1;
tmp2[tmp2.length - 1] = relatedTitles[i];
}
}
relatedTitles = tmp2;
relatedUrls = tmp;
}
function contains(a, e) {
for(var j = 0; j < a.length; j++) if (a[j]==e) return true;
return false;
}
function printRelatedLabels() {
var r = Math.floor((relatedTitles.length - 1) * Math.random());
var i = 0;
document.write('<ul>');
while (i < relatedTitles.length && i < 20) {
document.write('<li><a href="' + relatedUrls[r] + '">' + relatedTitles[r] + '</a></li>');
if (r < relatedTitles.length - 1) {
r++;
} else {
r = 0;
}
i++;
}
document.write('</ul>');
}
//]]>
</script>

Scroll down to the blog1 widget, and find the following:

<b:if cond='data:post.labels'>
<data:postLabelsLabel/>
<b:loop values='data:post.labels' var='label'>
<a expr:href='data:label.url' rel='tag'><data:label.name/></a><b:if cond='data:label.isLast != "true"'>,</b:if>
</b:loop>
</b:if>


and change it to :

<b:if cond='data:post.labels'>
<data:postLabelsLabel/>
<b:loop values='data:post.labels' var='label'>
<a expr:href='data:label.url' rel='tag'><data:label.name/></a><b:if cond='data:label.isLast != "true"'>,</b:if>
<b:if cond='data:blog.pageType == "item"'>
<script expr:src='"/feeds/posts/default/-/" + data:label.name + "?alt=json-in-script&amp;callback=related_results_labels&amp;max-results=10"' type='text/javascript'/>
</b:if>
</b:loop>
</b:if>

Save the code back to your template html and go to page elements and add a new HTML/Javascript widget underneath the main blog posts widget with this code :

<script type="text/javascript">
removeRelatedDuplicates();
printRelatedLabels();
</script>

Now go back to Template -> Edit HTML, check the check box to expand the template code, and find the HTML/Javascript widget you just added. It'll look something like the following. Add the lines in bold:

<b:widget id='HTML13' locked='false' title='Related Posts' type='HTML'>
<b:includable id='main'>
<b:if cond='data:blog.pageType == "item"'>
<!-- only display title if it's non-empty -->
<b:if cond='data:title != ""'>
<h2 class='title'><data:title/></h2>
</b:if>
<div class='widget-content'>
<data:content/>
</div>

<b:include name='quickedit'/>
</b:if>
</b:includable>
</b:widget>

There's a few numbers you can tweak to show more or less related posts. In the first code box there is a part that says i < results="10.">

Credit Link Blogger Templates

Posted in น่าสนใจ | 0 ความคิดเห็น

USB Safely Remove v4.0.9.760

Written on 3:41 AM by ปั้มเงิน Cookie Run

Posted in Programs | 0 ความคิดเห็น

Discovery 4 - Module 9 Exam Version 4.0

Written on 1:20 AM by ปั้มเงิน Cookie Run

1. Which two statements describe factors that influence the layout of a proposal? (Choose two.)
• Proposal layouts are required to use sans serif typefaces.
• A specific proposal layout is followed when one is specified in the RFP.
• A designer chooses the layout if a written RFP does not specify an outline.
• The software that is used to create the proposal dictates the proposal layouts.
• Proposal layouts are required to use a format that is designed by the network engineer.

2 . What two items are typically included in the executive summary of a proposal? (Choose two.)
• project scope summary
• high-level implementation plan
• quotes for all needed equipment
• technical requirements for the design
• emphasis on the benefits that meet the goals of the customer

3. Which proposal section describes the intended routing protocol, security mechanisms, and addressing for the planned network?
• logical design
• physical design
• executive summary
• implementation plan
• network requirements

4. Which occurrence would indicate a failure of the design phase?
• The incorrect model switches were ordered.
• There is no customer signoff for task completion.
• New requirements are identified after implementation begins.
• The new network capacity is inadequate to support required traffic.

5. A network installation team is assigned to replace all core switches in an existing data center. No other upgrades are planned. Which kind of installation is this?
• a new installation
• a fork-lift installation
• a phased installation
• a green field installation

6. What service is provided Cisco standard warranty?
• software application maintenance
• replacement of defected hardware
• next business day delivery of replacement parts
• access to the Cisco Technical Assistance Center (TAC) 24 hours a day, 7 days a week

7. An upgraded version of the Cisco IOS has been purchased. However, the CD arrived damaged. How will this loss be covered?
• a hardware warranty
• a software warranty
• the Cisco SMARTnet Service
• an additional service contract

8. A company informs the account manager that the installation of a new edge router at the customer remote branch location cannot be done at the scheduled time because of a large order that the branch office needs to complete. As a result, the end date of the project must be adjusted to accommodate the additional time. What is the action should the account manager take?
• Cancel the order for the new edge router.
• Work with designer to redesign the branch network.
• Instruct the technician to complete the install of the router at on the date in the contract.
• Adjust the timeline documentation to show the company how the delay will affect the
• project completion date.

9. NetworkingCompany completes the installation of a network upgrade for a retail customer. All of the onsite tests complete successfully and the customer IT staff approves the results of the tests. The manager of the retail store contacts NetworkingCompany to inform the company that the store will not pay for the upgrade until a recently purchased software package is installed and tested on the network. Which two items that are contained in the proposal can the account manager refer to when discussing this issue with the store manager?(Choose two.)
• the project scope
• the bill-of-material
• the project timeline
• the terms and conditions
• the business goals of the customer
• the evaluation of the current network

10. The operation of a new branch location network is delayed because a VPN cannot be configured and established between the branch location and the main office. It is determined that the router at the main office does not have enough memory and does not have the correct Cisco IOS version image to support the VPN features. To prevent this delay, this problem should have been identified and corrected during which part of the design project?
• the preparation of the business case
• the prioritizing of the technical goals
• the characterization of the existing network
• the implementation of the approved design

11.The NetworkingCompany team is tasked to prepare an implementation schedule for a customer. It is determined that the new firewalls and wireless controllers that are specified in the design cannot be delivered and installed within the agreed upon time frame. The NetworkingCompany informs the customer of the problem. What two options can the NetworkingCompany team take to ensure the success of the project? (Choose two.)
• plan to add additional staff and resources to shorten the installation time after the new equipment is delivered
• eliminate redundancy in the design to reduce the amount of equipment that is needed
• renegotiate a new time frame with the customer to accommodate the delay
• delay the installation of the security devices and controllers until a later time
• redesign the network to use only readily available equipment and software

12. AAA Financial Services Company is performing implementation planning for a core switch upgrade. The company has 200 financial software programmers that work billable hours during the week. They have critical, scheduled money transfer transmissions that occur at hourly intervals every night. There are two, two-hour long IT maintenance windows scheduled for software upgrades, one on Saturday and one on Sunday. The bank advertises online banking as available 24 hours on business days and 21 hours on the weekends. However, a network upgrade that is necessary to replace some switches is expected to take four hours. Because of rack constraints, this time includes three hours to remove the old switches before the new switches can be installed and one hour to test the logical configuration. How should the implementation scheduling be handled
• Defer the software upgrades. Use the Saturday window to perform the hardware installation. Use the Sunday window to perform the logical testing.
• Coordinate and publish a separate four-hour downtime during Friday to perform the complete switch installation and testing process. Use the Saturday and Sunday windows to correct any outage problems after the Friday window.
• Coordinate and publish two, four-hour downtimes incorporating the published Saturday and Sunday windows. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working
correctly with the old software. Use the Sunday window as a fallback scheduling period if there re problems necessitating backing out of the Saturday window.
• Coordinate and publish an eight-hour downtime incorporating the Saturday window. This ill allow four hours for installation and logical testing, one hour for troubleshooting and decision, and three hours to roll back to the previous configuration if the new switching cannot pass the logical testing. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working orrectly with the old software.

13. ncluded in a Bill of Materials (BOM) for a SOHO wired implementation is a Cisco 2811 router, Catalyst 2560 switch, four PCs, three laptops, and a networked printer. Wireless LAN capability will be implemented on this network. Which two equipment types must be added to the BOM to implement this request? (Choose two.)
• DNS server
• LAN switch
• wireless NICs
• DHCP server
• wireless access points

14. A customer has just taken delivery of a Cisco 2811 router and Catalyst 3560 switch. Included with the purchase is the SMARTnet Service. Which two resources are included with SMARTnet Service? (Choose two.)
• signature file updates
• technical support from TAC
• maintenance releases for OS
• software application major releases
• software application maintenance and minor releases

15. A Cisco 1841 router has been purchased without an agreement for SMARTnet Service. What two items are guaranteed under the standard warranty? (Choose two.)
• access to TAC
• replacement of defective physical media
• advanced replacement of hardware parts
• access to a renewable standard warranty contract
• under normal use, replacement of defective hardware

16. Upon completion of a proposal, a network design team must sell their ideas to two key stakeholders. Who are these two stakeholders? (Choose two.)
• customers
• licensing boards
• cabling contractors
• internal management
• project implementation team

17. What are two important guidelines when creating a slide presentation for a meeting with a customer? (Choose two.)
• Use all capital letters on words and phrases when possible for added emphasis.
• Provide varied background graphics to enhance viewer interest.
• Use contrasting colors for background and text to aid visibility.
• Change fonts frequently to denote differences in subject matter.
• Use bulleted text to lead the discussion.

18. In order to finalize a project proposal, an account manager of a
• networking company creates the terms and conditions section. What are two clauses that should be included in this section? (Choose two.)
• cost summary
• installation steps
• change order procedures
• problem resolution process
• maintenance contract quotation

19. Which two items will a systems engineer include in an implementation plan? (Choose two.)
• references to design documents
• the business goals of the customer
• diagrams of the existing traffic flows
• the steps to install and test the network
• cost of each network device and component

20. Which statement describes a phased installation into an existing network?
• A phased installation generally takes less time and expense than a green-field installation.
• A phased installation is not suitable for large, multi-site network installations or upgrades.
• A phased installation requires detailed planning in order to avoid disruption of user services.
• A phased installation involves building an entire replacement network and migrating users over to it.

Posted in Designing, Discovery 4 Version 4.0, Supporting Computer Networks | 0 ความคิดเห็น

CCNA 1 - Module Final Exam (B) Version 3.1

Written on 1:01 AM by ปั้มเงิน Cookie Run

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - FINAL Exam (B)

1. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 85
• 90
• BA
• A1
• B3
• 1C

2. Convert the Hexadecimal number A2 into its Base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 156
• 158
• 160
• 162
• 164
• 166

3. Select the necessary information that is required to compute the estimated time it would take to transfer data from one location to another. (Choose two.)
• file size
• data format
• network in use
• type of medium
• bandwidth of the link

4. Using the data transfer calculation T=S/BW, how long would it take a 4MB file to be sent over a 1.5Mbps connection?
• 52.2 seconds
• 21.3 seconds
• 6.4 seconds
• 2 seconds
• 0.075 seconds
• 0.0375 seconds

5. What are features of the TCP/IP Transport layer? (Choose two.)
• path determination
• handles representation, encoding and dialog control
• uses TCP and UDP protocols
• packet switching
• reliability, flow control and error correction

6. Which combinations of charges will be repelled by electric force? (Choose two.)
• neutral and neutral
• neutral and positive
• neutral and negative
• positive and positive
• positive and negative
• negative and negative

7. Which of the following are considered the best electrical conductors for use in data network communications? (Choose three.)
• glass fibers
• copper
• gold
• plastic
• silicon
• silver

8. During cable testing, which of the following are used to calculate the information carrying capacity of a data cable? (Choose two.)
• bit speed
• attenuation
• wire map
• saturation limit
• analog bandwidth

9. The highest capacity Ethernet technologies should be implemented in which areas of a network? (Choose three.)
• between workstation and backbone switch
• between individual workstations
• between backbone switches
• between enterprise server and switch
• on aggregate access links

10. What device must be used between an AUI port of a networking device and the media to which it is being connected?
• a transducer
• a transmitter
• a transceiver
• a transponder
• a port replicator

11. An ISDN Basic Rate Interface (BRI) is composed of how many signaling channels?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4

12. Which of the following items are common to all 100BASE technologies? (Choose three.)
• frame format
• media
• connectors
• timing
• multi-part encoding

13. Which of the following does 1000BASE-T use to accomplish gigabit speeds on Cat 5e cable?
• the use of four conductors in full-duplex mode
• the use of two multiplexed pairs of wires, simultaneously
• the use of three pairs of wires for data and the fourth for stabilization and forward error correction
• the use of all four pairs of wires in full-duplex mode, simultaneously

14. For which of the following is Ethernet considered the standard? (Choose three.)
• inter-building connection
• mid-length voice
• video conferencing
• vertical wiring
• horizontal wiring
• diagonal wiring

15. John has been hired as the network administrator of a local company and has decided to add more hubs to the company's existing network. Which of the following has been caused by John's inexperience?
• collision domain extended
• an increased number of collision domains
• increased network performance
• increased bandwidth
• extended bandwidth

16. "CompA" is trying to locate a new computer named "CompB" on the network. Which of the following does "CompA" broadcast to find the MAC address of "CompB"?
• MAC request
• ARP request
• ping
• Telnet
• proxy ARP

17. Which of the following is a term associated with replacing hubs with switches to increase the number of collision domains?
• encapsulation
• latency
• segmentation
• layered model
• broadcast domain
• extended

18. The accumulation of traffic from which of the following can cause a network condition called broadcast radiation? (Choose three.)
• anonymous FTP servers
• telnet sessions
• video over IP applications
• NAS services
• ARP requests
• RIP updates

19. Which of the following describes the use of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
• resolve routing loops
• eliminate Split Horizon errors
• limit collisions
• resolve switching loops

20. Which term describes an ARP response by a router on behalf of a requesting host?
• ARP
• RARP
• Proxy ARP
• Proxy RARP

21. Which OSI layer encapsulates data into packets?
• session
• transport
• network
• data link

22. Which OSI layer defines the functions of a router?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport
• session

23. Which of the following are Cisco proprietary routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• RIPv2
• IGRP
• OSPF
• BGP
• RIPv1
• EIGRP

24. A company with a Class B license needs to have a minimum of 1,000 subnets with each subnet capable of accommodating 50 hosts. Which mask below is the appropriate one?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224

25. A small company has a class C network license and needs to create five usable subnets, each subnet capable of accommodating at least 20 hosts. Which of the following is the appropriate subnet mask?
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240

26. When a network administrator applies the subnet mask 255.255.255.248 to a Class A address, for any given subnet, how many IP addresses are available to be assigned to devices?
• 1022
• 510
• 254
• 126
• 30
• 6

27. If a network administrator needed to download files from a remote server, which protocols could the administrator use to remotely access those files? (Choose two.)
• NFS
• ASCII
• TFTP
• IMAP
• FTP
• UDP

28. What is established during a connection-oriented file transfer between computers? (Choose two.)
• a temporary connection to establish authentication of hosts
• a connection used for ASCII or binary mode data transfer
• a connection used to provide the tunnel through which file headers are transported
• a command connection which allows the transfer of multiple commands directly to the remote server system
• a control connection between the client and server

29. Which of the following protocols are used for e-mail transfer between clients and servers? (Choose three.)
• TFTP
• SNMP
• POP3
• SMTP
• IMAP4
• postoffice

30. What type of wiring problem is depicted in this sample of a cable tester?
• a fault
• a short
• an open
• a split
• a good map

31. Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?
• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 5
• Layer 6

32. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
• cross-over
• straight-through
• rollover
• patch cable

33. What does the "10" in 10Base2 indicate about this version of Ethernet?
• The version uses Base10 numbering within the frames.
• The version operates at a transmission rate of 10 Mbps.
• Frames can travel 10 meters unrepeated.
• The maximum frame length is 10 octets.


34. How is a MAC address represented?
• four groups of eight binary digits separated by a decimal point
• four Base10 digits separated by a decimal point
• six hexadecimal digits
• twelve hexadecimal digits
• twenty-four Base10 digits

35. To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?
• the 4-5-3 rule
• the 6-4-2 rule
• the 3-4-5 rule
• the 5-4-3 rule

36. Which of the following wireless standards increased transmission capabilities to 11 Mbps?
• 802.11a
• 802.11b
• 802.11c
• 802.11d

37. Which protocol functions at the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite?
• File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
• Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
• Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
• Internet Protocol (IP)
• User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
• Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)

38. Which of these workstation installation and setup tasks are concerned with network access layer functions? (Choose two.)
• configuring the e-mail client
• installing NIC drivers
• configuring IP network settings
• connecting the network cable
• using FTP to download application software updates

39. Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?
• first two octets
• third and fourth octets
• network portion
• host portion
• only the fourth octet

40. Which of the following are features of the Internet Protocol (IP)? (Choose two.)
• It is the most widely implemented global addressing scheme.
• It allows two hosts to share a single address on a local area network.
• It is a hierarchical addressing scheme allowing addresses to be grouped.
• It is only locally significant, used primarily on local area networks.

41. In a new network installation, the network administrator has decided to use a medium that is not affected by electrical noise. Which cable type will best meet this standard?
• coaxial
• screened twisted pair
• shielded twisted pair
• unshielded twisted pair
• fiber optic

42. What is the recommended maximum number of workstations configured on a peer-to-peer network?
• 25
• 15
• 10
• 5
• 2

43. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 300 meters
• 500 meters

44. Which type of institution does the domain suffix .org represent?
• government
• education
• network
• non-profit

45. Which of the following services is used to translate a web address into an IP address?
• DNS
• WINS
• DHCP
• Telnet

46. Which part of the URL http://www.awsb.ca/teacher gives the name of the domain?
• www
• http://
• /teacher
• awsb.ca

47. Which of the following will test the internal loopback of a node?
• ping 10.10.10.1
• ping 192.168.1.1
• ping 127.0.0.1
• ping 223.223.223.223
• ping 255.255.255.255

48. Which of the following is the Layer 4 PDU?
• bit
• frame
• packet
• segment

49. Which of the following are small, discrete components found within a personal computer? (Choose three.)
• transistor
• microprocessor
• power supply
• capacitor
• light emitting diode
• hard disk

50. What is important to remember about the data link layer of the OSI model when considering Peer to Peer communication? (Choose three.)
• It links data to the transport layer.
• It encapsulates frames into packets.
• It provides a service to the network layer.
• It encapsulates the network layer information into a frame.
• Its header contains a physical address which is required to complete the data link functions.
It encodes the data link frame into a pattern of 1s and 0s (bits) for transmission on the medium.

51. Which of the following are useable Class A IP addresses with a default subnet mask? (Choose three.)
• 127.0.39.1
• 111.9.28.30
• 123.1.2.132
• 128.50.38.2
• 105.1.34.1
• 0.23.92.3

Posted in CCNA1-Version 3.1, Networking Basics | 0 ความคิดเห็น

CCNA 1 - Module Final Exam (A) Version 3.1

Written on 1:00 AM by ปั้มเงิน Cookie Run

CCNA 1 Networking Basics - FINAL Exam (A)

1. Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?
• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network

2. Router interface Ethernet 0 has been assigned the IP address 10.172.192.168 255.255.255.240. What is the network IP address of this interface?
• 10.0.0.0
• 10.172.0.0
• 10.172.192.0
• 10.172.192.160
• 10.172.192.168
• 10.172.192.175

3. Examine the graphic with current configurations. The New York Offices of ABC Company recently upgraded the computers in the administrative office. Shortly after the upgrade, Host A in the clerical office failed and was replaced with one of the retired administrative office computers. However, the computer can not access the company network in the new location. What is the likely cause of this network access issue for Host A?
• MAC address incorrectly entered
• default gateway incorrectly entered
• subnet mask incorrectly entered
• IP address incorrectly entered

4. Which of the following increases the potential for a collision to occur?
• the use of an active hub instead of an intelligent hub
• the use of an intelligent hub instead of an active hub
• a reduction in the number of devices attached to the hub
• an increase in the number of devices attached to the hub •

5. What is attenuation?
• opposition to the flow of current
• measurement of electrical signals relative to time
• degradation of a signal as it travels along the medium
• amount or volume of traffic that is flowing on the medium

6. Two peer hosts are running applications that exchange data using UDP. During the current session, a datagram fails to arrive at the destination. What is true concerning the retransmission of the datagram?
• Datagram retransmission occurs when the retransmission timer expires in the source host.
• Datagram retransmission occurs when the retransmission timer expires in the destination host.
• Datagram retransmission is controlled by the application layer protocol.
• Datagram retransmission involves only the data with sequence numbers equal to or higher than the sequence number of the current datagram.

7. What is significant about the ping 127.0.0.1 command?
• It verifies the operation of the TCP/IP protocol stack on a host and is called an internal loopback test.
• It verifies connection to the remote host with the IP address 127.0.0.1.
• It verifies whether the router that connects the local network to other networks can be reached.
• It verifies the route packets take between the local host and the host with the IP address 127.0.0.1.

8. Which LAN switching mode has the highest latency?
• fast forward
• fragment-free
• latency forwarding
• store-and-forward

9. Which of the following application layer protocols use UDP segments? (Choose two.)
• DNS
• FTP
• Telnet
• TFTP
• SMTP

10. Which cable specifications are indicated by 100BASE-T?
• 100-Mbps transmission speed, baseband signal, coaxial cable
• 100-Mbps transmission speed, broadband signal, twisted-pair cable
• 100-Mbps transmission speed, baseband signal, twisted-pair cable
• Equal to 10-Gbps transmission speed, baseband signal, twisted-pair cable

11. When is a crossover cable used in a network?
• when connecting a host to the router console port
• when connecting a host to a switch
• when connecting a host to a host
• when connecting a switch to a router

12. Refer to the graphic. What must be configured on Host A to allow it communicate with the e-mail server? (Choose three.)
• IP address •
• subnet mask •
• default gateway •
• router name
• switch name
• NetBIOS name address

13. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a crossover cable used with Cisco devices?
• Cable A
• Cable B
• Cable C
• Cable D

14. Which type of address is 192.168.17.134/29?
• host address
• network address
• broadcast address
• multicast address

15. How many collision domains are shown in the diagram?
• three
• four
• five
• six
• seven
• eight

16. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
• when connecting a router through the console port
• when connecting one switch to another switch
• when connecting a host to a switch
• when connecting a router to another router

17. How does network cable length affect attenuation?
• Category 5 cable that is run in metal conduit has the highest attenuation in the shortest distance.
• Shorter cable lengths have greater signal attenuation.
• Longer cable lengths have greater signal attenuation.
• The length of the cable has no effect on signal attenuation.

18. Which of the following statements are correct about CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
• It is a media access method used in LANs. •
• It is a media access method used in FDDI WANs.
• When a device needs to transmit, it checks to see if the media is available. •
• A device sends data without checking media availability because all devices have equal access.
• Multiple devices can successfully transmit simultaneously.
• Only one device can successfully transmit at a time.

19. Which of the following must be present for current to flow? (Choose three.)
• closed loop
• bit-generating device
• insulating material
• source of voltage
• load
• switch

20. If Host A pings Host B through a newly installed switch with no entries in the MAC address table, which stations will receive the ping packet?
• B only
• A and B
• B and switch
• A, B, and switch
• B, C, D, and switch •
• A, B, C, D, and switch

21. Which devices shown in the graphic must have a MAC address?
• only PC
• only router
• PC and router
• PC, hub, and router
• PC, printer, and router

22. What kind of connection is represented in the graphic?
• console connection
• Ethernet connection
• ISDN connection
• leased line connection

23. Which of the following is the decimal representation of the binary number 11010011?
• 203
• 204
• 211
• 212

24. Which type of cable is required to make a connection between a router console port and a PC COM port?
• straight-through cable
• crossover cable
• rollover cable
• DB-9 cable
• coaxial cable

25. Determine the number of useable networks and hosts for the IP address 192.168.50.0/27
• 4 networks / 62 hosts
• 6 networks / 64 hosts
• 32 networks / 8 hosts
• 6 networks / 30 hosts
• 8 networks / 32 hosts
• 2 networks / 8 hosts

26. A network administrator is placing an older router back in to service. The administrator discovered that the IOS and configuration files need to be updated to meet the LAN specifications. Which application layer protocol is used to transfer the new configuration files into the router memory?
• SNMP
• SMTP
• HTTP
• TFTP

27. Which of the following best describes Spanning Tree Protocol?
• It enables a network to span across multiple physical segments.
• It enables a switch to eliminate switching loops.
• It enables a switch to dynamically choose the best switch mode.
• It enables a switch to perform as a router.

28. Which of the following subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.)
• 255.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.192.255.0
• 255.224.0.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.255.128

29. How is data encapsulated as it is moved down the OSI model?
• data, segments, frames, packets, bits
• data, packets, segments, frames, bits
• data, segments, packets, frames, bits
• data, packets, frames, segments, bits

30. Which of the following describes latency?
• the noise generated from outside a cable
• the degradation of a signal as it travels along the media
• the time required for a NIC to place a frame on the network media
• the delay between the time a frame leaves its source device and reaches its destination

31. Which of the following is the binary representation of the decimal number 111?
• 01101111
• 01111101
• 11110111
• 11101101

32. Which LAN switching mode begins switching after reading only the first 64 bytes of the frame?
• fast forward
• fragment-free
• latency forwarding
• store-and-forward

33. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?
• 1 and 2; 4 and 5
• 1 and 2; 3 and 6 •
• 3 and 6; 7 and 8
• 4 and 5; 7 and 8

34. Which of the following commands could be used on a Windows-based computer to view the current IP configuration of the system? (Choose two.)
• configip
• ifconfig
• ipconfig
• winipcfg
• winipconfig

35. Which type of address is 192.168.17.111/28?
• host address
• network address
• broadcast address
• multicast address

36. Which of the following networking devices increase the number of collision domains? (Choose three.)
• switch
• hub
• router
repeater
• bridge

37. What information can be determined from the MAC addresses of PC1, PC2, and PC3, as shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• PC1 and PC2 NICs need to be replaced because they have the same OUI identifier.
• PC2 and PC3 NICs need to be replaced because they have different OUI identifiers.
• PC1 and PC2 NICs are from the same vendor.
• PC1 and PC3 NICs need to be replaced because they have the same vendor-assigned address.
• PC2 and PC3 NICs are from different vendors.
• PC2 and PC3 NICs are from the same vendor.

38. Which of the following are considered WAN technologies? (Choose two.)
• DSL
• Ethernet
• Wireless Ethernet
• T1-Carrier
• Token Ring

39. which one of the router connectors shown in the graphic would be used for a LAN connection?
• Connector A
• Connector B
• Connector C
• Connector D

40. How is full-duplex capability typically achieved in fiber-optic cable?
• Two fibers are encased in separate sheaths.
• Light is bounced at different rates in opposite directions.
• Transmit speeds are so high that half-duplex is acceptable.
• Colors of the light spectrum are separated into transmit and receive streams.

41. Which of the following are characteristics of IP? (Choose three.)
• connection-oriented protocol
• connectionless protocol•
• reliable protocol
• unreliable protocol •
• routed protocol •
• routing protocol

42. Which of the following describe the token-passing logical topology? (Choose two.)
• FDDI is an example of a token-passing network.
• Token-passing logical topologies must also be physical ring topologies.
• One of the disadvantages of the token-passing logical topology is the high collision rate.
• Computers transmit data after "listening" to the wire to detect other traffic.
• Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.

43. What is the maximum length of a media segment used for 100BASE-TX?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 400 meters
• 500 meters

44. which of the following networking devices divide a network into separate collision domains? (Choose two.)
• repeater
• bridge
• switch
• AUI
• hub

45. Which of the following are characteristics of UTP cable? (Choose three.)
• Each wire is covered by insulating material.
• It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
• It is a four-pair wire medium.•
• It is difficult to terminate the cable.
• It relies on the cancellation effect produced by the twisted wire pairs.
• It is more expensive than any other type of LAN cabling.

46. Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?
IP address incorrectly entered
network cables unplugged
• subnet mask incorrectly entered
network card failure

47. Which of the following describes a physical full-mesh topology?
• It requires termination at both ends of the cable.
• It uses a hub or a switch as a central point to connect all wires.
• It provides maximum connectivity between all network systems.
• It links all computers to a main computer that controls all traffic on the network.

48. Which two statements describe the TFTP protocol? (Choose two.)
• uses authenticated file transfer procedure
• provides connection-oriented service
• provides connectionless service
• provides more features that FTP
• lacks most of the features of FTP

49. Which of the following are transport layer protocols of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)
• FTP
• UDP
• SMTP
• TFTP
• TCP

50. Which type of UTP network cable connects two Cisco switches?
• straight-through
• crossover
• rollover
• patch

51. How will the MAIN router dynamically learn a route to the 10.16.10.48/28 subnetwork in the diagram?
• with a routed protocol
• with a routing protocol
• with a static route
• with a directly connected route

52. Which of the following describes the RIP version 1 routing protocol?
• Cisco proprietary hybrid protocol
• distance vector protocol that uses hop count as the only metric •
• link state protocol supporting multiple routed protocols
• distance vector protocol that uses delay, bandwidth, load, and reliability metrics

53. How many broadcast domains are shown in the diagram?
• three
• four
• five
• six
• seven
• eight

54. Which of the following are advantages of UTP cable? (Choose three.)
• less expensive than fiber optic
• flexible and easy to run in a building
• distance between signal boosts is longer than it is for coaxial
• transmits data at a faster rate than any copper-based media
• receives less RMF and EMI interference than other types

Which of the following devices extend a collision domain? (choose 2)
• -hub
• -repeater

Posted in CCNA1-Version 3.1, Networking Basics | 0 ความคิดเห็น

Discovery 4 - Module 8 Exam Version 4.0

Written on 12:35 PM by ปั้มเงิน Cookie Run

1. Which mechanism is used to create a floating static route?
• administrative distance
• cost
• hop count
• passive interface

2. IPSec operates at which layer of the OSI model?
• application
• network
• datalink
• transport

3. Which is true regarding Frame Relay LMI?
• There are three LMI types standardized by ANSI, ITU-T, and Cisco.
• Routers at each end of a Frame Relay virtual circuit must always use the same LMI type.
• The LMI type must be manually configured.
• The only function of LMI is to verify the connection between the router and the Frame Relay switch.

4. Which statement identifies the IP address design for subinterfaces that are configured for a Frame Relay network?
• Multipoint configurations require the IP address of each subinterface on each router to be in its own subnet.
• Multipoint configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each router.
• Multipoint configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each router.

5. Which three algorithms can be used to encrypt user data in an IPSec VPN framework? (Choose three.)
• 3DES
• AES
• Diffie-Hellman
• DES
• ESP
• SHA

6. Which flag is set by a Frame Relay switch to inform the receiving station that congestion was experienced?
• BECN
• DE
• FECN
• FCS

7. Refer to the exhibit. The complete configuration of a Frame Relay interface on the Chicago router is shown. How does the Chicago router know which DLCI is mapped to the IP address of the remote router?
• DE
• CIR
• FECN
• Inverse ARP

8. What statement correctly defines the purpose of the split horizon rule?
• marks the route unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers
• prevents routers from advertising a network through the interface from which the update came
• prevents routers from accepting higher cost routes to networks previously marked as inaccessible before the timer expires
• limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

9. Which PVC status suggests that the router recognizes the DLCI configured on its interface as being present on the Frame Relay switch, but the PVC associated with the DLCI is not capable of end-to-end communication?
• active
• deleted
• inactive
• idle

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which router command is used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address?
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 110
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 112
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 110
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 112

11. A network administrator issued the command show frame-relay pvc. The response from the router shows the status of a PVC as deleted. What is the reason for this status?
• The DLCI is using the wrong LMI type.
• The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but the circuit is not usable.
• The DLCI configured on the CPE device does not match the DLCI.

12. What is one benefit of using a network simulation software package?
• The network design can be tested before it is actually implemented.
• Simulation software packages are quickly updated to support new network technologies and devices.
• Simulated devices have the same features as actual devices, allowing for detection of all potential problems.
• Software packages can simulate all possible network traffic conditions, giving an accurate prediction of network performance.

13. What are two components a network designer considers when planning a VPN? (Choose two.)
• encryption algorithm for privacy and security
• encapsulation protocol to use when creating the VPN tunnel
• switching technology to optimize VPN WAN throughput
• tunneling technology for guarding against data corruption
• routing protocol on the gateway for optimum performance

14. When identifying VPN requirements for endpoint users, what care must be taken to protect the network when remote users log in from unsecured public locations?
• Ensure that the user has VPN client software that allows access to all internal resources.
• Ensure that the VPN user traffic does not slow down internally sourced traffic on the network.
• Ensure that there are no obstacles to hamper the users from accessing all internal resources.
• Ensure that remote users can only access network resources that are appropriate to their job function.

15. Which two components are key elements when implementing a VPN? (Choose two.)
• concentration
• encryption
• prioritization
• compression
• encapsulation

16. What tool can help ease the configuration of VPN servers on routers?
• Cisco SDM
• PIX Firewall
• Cisco VPN Concentrator
• Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances

17. What is used to identify the path to the next frame-relay switch in a Frame Relay network?
• CIR
• DLCI
• FECN
• BECN

18. Which two statements are true regarding VPN security? (Choose two.)
• Users may only establish a VPN connection from secure locations and never from public areas.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN do not have to log in to resources on the network.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN are are considered trusted users on the network.
• Users may establish a VPN connection from unsecure locations such as airports and hotel lobbies.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN should have access to all the resources on the network.

19. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the Orlando office to the DC office?
• MAC address of the Orlando router
• MAC address of the DC router
• 192.168.1.25
• 192.168.1.26
• DLCI 100
• DLCI 200

20. Two directly connected routers are able to ping each other through the Serial 0/0/0 interfaces. A network administrator changes the encapsulation on one router to PPP, and the other is left at the default value. What statement would appear in the output of the show interfaces command issued on one of the routers?
• Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is up
• Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is down
• Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is down
• Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is up
• Serial 0/0/0 is administratively down, line protocol is down

21. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration shown for R2?
• R2 is configured as the Frame Relay switch.
• R2 is configured as the main site in a multipoint Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as the main site in a point-to-point Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as a remote site in a multipoint Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as a remote site in a point-to-point Frame Relay WAN prototype.

22. A company uses serial interfaces on its border router to connect to branch offices through WAN connections. The security policy dictates that the encapsulation should use PPP with authentication protocol CHAP. Which statement is true about the configuration requirement of CHAP?
• Both the username and password are case sensitive.
• Neither the username nor the password is case sensitive.
• The username is case sensitive but the password is not case sensitive.
• The password is case sensitive but the username is not case sensitive.

23. Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Local LAN printing will use the VPN tunnel.
• The traffic load on the VPN server is increased.
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
• There is a reduced security risk to the corporate network.
• All traffic travels across the VPN tunnel from client to server.
• Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.

24. An IP address has been assigned to the S0/0/0 interface of a new Cisco router. The administrator wishes to quickly test basic connectivity with the serial interface of an adjoining Cisco router via the use of the default WAN protocol. Which WAN protocol will be used for this test?
• PPP
• Frame Relay
• DSL
• HDLC
• ATM 

25. Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Local LAN printing will use the VPN tunnel.
• The traffic load on the VPN server is increased.
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
• There is a reduced security risk to the corporate network.
• All traffic travels across the VPN tunnel from client to server.
• Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.

Posted in Designing, Discovery 4 Version 4.0, Supporting Computer Networks | 0 ความคิดเห็น

Discovery 4 - Module 7 Exam Version 4.0

Written on 12:33 PM by ปั้มเงิน Cookie Run

1. A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept?(Choose two.)
• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
• Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
• Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.
• Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.

2. While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?
• Appendix
• Test Procedures
• Test Description
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?
• Test Description
• Test Procedures
• Design and Topology Diagram
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria

4. What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?
• a firewall at the network edge
• port security at the access design layer
• port security at the distribution design layer
• IP access control lists at the access design layer

5. How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
• They select the functions that occur at the network core.
• They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.
• They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.

6. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?
• R1
• S1
• R3
• S2
• R5
• S3

7. Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)
• Switch1 is the root bridge.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the "Role" column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.
• Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.

8. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• root
• backup
• alternate
• designated

9. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?
• show spanning-tree
• show interfaces trunk
• show cdp neighbors
• show interfaces
• show ip interface brief

10. Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?
• Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.
• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.
• Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.
• Use the switchport access vlan vlan number command from interface configuration mode
• to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?
• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
• EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.
• EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.
• EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.

12. A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?
• NBAR
• a pilot network
• a route summary
• a network simulator
• a physical topology ma

13. In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?
• the metric used for a particular route
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
• the priority number given to the device for the election process
• the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number
• the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing

14. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?
• inbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R2
• outbound on S0/0 of R2

15. Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)
• Provide redundant connections to all end users.
• Add another core switch to increase redundancy.
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
• Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.

16. Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?
• Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.
• The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.
• Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have bee added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?
• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
• The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.
• The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.
• The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
• The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?
• Add an enable password to the switch.
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
• Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.
• Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.

20. Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?
• discarding
• forwarding
• learning
• listening

Posted in Designing, Discovery 4 Version 4.0, Supporting Computer Networks | 0 ความคิดเห็น

Discovery 4 - Module 6 Exam Version 4.0

Written on 12:32 PM by ปั้มเงิน Cookie Run

1. A network engineer researched whether there are mechanisms available to help with the transition from an IPv4 addressing structure to IPv6. What three options did the engineer find?(Choose three.)
• A protocol translation mechanism allows communication between the IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
• A packet analyzer determines the addressing structure and converts it to the appropriate IPv4 or IPv6 scheme.
• New Core devices that support IPV6 must be purchased.
• A protocol converter changes IPv4 packets into IPv6 packets and vice versa.
• A dual-stack network design allows both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing to be used on all network devices.
• Tunneling allows IPv4 packets to be encapsulated so that they can traverse IPv6 networks and vice versa.

2. When should the command no auto-summary be used?
• with RIP version 1, to enable classless routing
• with RIP version 2, to enable classless routing
• with RIP version 1, when discontigous networks exist
• with RIP version 2, when discontigous networks exist

3. Refer to the exhibit. What must an administrator do on R3 to ensure that update packets are sent with subnet mask information?
• Add the commands:
   R3(config-router)# auto-summary 
   R3(config-router)# no version 2
• Add the commands:
   R3(config-router)# version 2 
   R3(config-router)# no auto-summary
• Change the network statement on R3:
   R3(config)# network 10.10.4.0
• Add the command:
   R3(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0

4. What best describes a discontiguous network?
• combines several classfull networking address
• contains more than one route to a destination
• implements more than one routing protocol
• separated from the rest of the hierarchical group by another network

5. Refer to the exhibit. A company has decided to add a new workgroup. If the subnetting scheme for the network uses contiguous blocks of addresses, what subnet is assigned to WGROUP3?
• 172.16.3.12/29
• 172.16.3.16/29
• 172.16.3.20/29
• 172.16.3.24/29
• 172.16.3.32/29

6. A network administrator is using the 10.0.0.0/8 network for the company. The administrator must create a masking scheme to support 750 users at the main office and 620 users at the remote office. What mask should be assigned to the 10.0.0.0/8 network to preserve the most addresses?
• 255.255.255.0
• /19
• /20
• 255.255.252.0
• /23
• /21

7. What is another format for the IPv6 address 1080:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:1267:01A2?
• 1080::1267:01A2
• 1080:0:0:0:0:1267:01A2
• 1080::0:1267:01A2
• 1080:::::1267.01A2

8. How many bits make up an IPv6 address?
• 32
• 48
• 64
• 128

9. After activating IPv6 traffic forwarding, configuring IPv6 addresses, and globally configure RIPng, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then specify which interfaces run RIPng, which are passive, and which only receive.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable RIPng with the ipv6 rip name enable command.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.
• Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command.
• RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The IT management has determined that the new subnet for WGROUP3 needs to be broken down into four more subnets. What would the subnet mask be for the four newly created subnets within WGROUP3?
• 255.255.128.0
• 255.255.192.0
• 255.255.224.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0

11. Refer to the exhibit. What is the first usable IP address that can be assigned to the WGROUP3 switch?
• 172.16.50.96/27
• 172.16.50.97/27
• 172.16.50.98/27
• 172.16.50.99/27
• 255.255.255.0

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of router commands is required to turn on unequal-cost load sharing so that RTRA selects the path A-B-E and the lowest cost path A-C-E to the Internet?
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
   RTRA(config-router)# variance 2
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
   RTRA(config-router)# variance 1
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
   RTRA(config-router)# maximum-paths 2
• RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1
   RTRA(config-router)# maximum-paths 1

13. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the default EIGRP configuration is running on both routers, which statement is true about Router A reaching the 2.2.2.0/24 network?
• The no auto-summary command needs to be issued to disable automatic summarization.
• The network 2.2.2.0 command needs to be issued to ensure that Router A recognizes the 2.2.2.0 network.
• EIGRP supports VLSM and automatically recognizes the 2.2.2.0 network.
• EIGRP does not support VLSM; therefore it cannot be used with discontiguous networks.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants router RTA to send only the summarized route of 10.10.0.0/16 to RTC. Which configuration accomplishes this?
• RTA(config)# interface s0/0 
   RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 
   RTA(config-if)# exit
   RTA(config)# router eigrp 101 
   RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary
• RTA(config)# interface s0/1
   RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
   RTA(config-if)# exit
   RTA(config)# router eigrp 101
   RTA(config-router)# no auto-summary
• RTA(config)# interface s0/0
   RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0
• RTA(config)# interface s0/1
   RTA(config-if)# ip summary-address eigrp 101 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0

15. What is a good design practice when developing a hierarchical addressing scheme?
• Address the nodes in the Access Layer and work toward the Core Layer.
• Assign addresses to the Core devices before planning the addressing scheme for the server farm.
• Determine where statically configured addressing will be implemented.
• Determine what percentage of devices are wired and what percentage of devices are wireless.

16. A network administrator is asked to design a new addressing scheme for a corporate network. Presently, there are 850 users at the head office, 220 users at sales, 425 at manufacturing, and 50 at the research site. Which statement defines the correct VLSM addressing map with minimal waste using the 172.17.0.0/16 network?
• 172.17.0.0/20 head office 
   172.17.1.0/21 manufacturing
   172.17.1.0/22 sales 
   172.17.3.0/26 research
• 172.17.48.0/19 head office 
   172.17.16.0/20 manufacturing 
   172.17.48.128/25 sales 
   172.17.48.0/26 research
• 172.17.0.0/22 head office
   172.17.4.0/23 manufacturing
   172.17.5.0/24 sales
   172.17.6.0/26 research
• 172.17.2.0/22 head office 
   172.17.3.0/23 manufacturing 
   172.17.4.0/26 sales 
   172.17.4.128/25 research

16. How would the routes for networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.15.0/24 be summarized?
• 172.16.0.0/20
• 172.16.0.0/21
• 172.16.0.0/22
• 172.16.0.0/24

17. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
• dynamic address assignment
• automatic route redistribution
• reduced routing update traffic
• easier management of summarization
• automatic summarization at classfull boundaries

18. Which statement describes MD5 authentication for neighbor authentication?
• All passwords are sent in clear text when neighbors first learn about each other.
• Only the initiating router sends its password using encrypted text when it first discovers a new router.
• All routers send their password using encrypted text only when they first learn of each other.
• All routers send their password using encrypted text each time they exchange update packets.

19. Refer to the exhibit. What are the broadcast addresses for each subnet?
• Admin - 172.16.31.0
   QA - 172.16.1.127 
   Development - 172.16.2.255
   Sales - 172.16.32.255
• Admin - 172.16.31.255
   QA - 172.16.1.255
   Development - 172.16.3.255
   Sales - 172.16.63.255
• Admin - 172.16.31.255
   QA - 172.16.1.127 
   Development - 172.16.3.255
   Sales - 172.16.63.255
• Admin - 172.16.31.0
   QA - 172.16.1.255 
   Development - 172.16.2.255 
   Sales - 172.16.32.255

20. Refer to the exhibit. The IT management is adding three VLANs to the wgroup3 switch. The current subnet will be broken down to support 14 hosts for each of the new VLANs. What will the new subnet mask be for these VLANs?
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.248

21. An administrator is configuring IPv6 on a router. The steps that have already been completed are: 
1. Activate IPv6 traffic forwarding. 
2. Configure IPv6 addresses. 
3. Globally configure RIPng.
What is the remaining step to complete the activation of RIPng?
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
• Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then specify which interfaces run RIPng, which are passive, and which only receive.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable RIPng with the ipv6 rip name enable command.
• Enter the interface mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.
• Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.

22. Which range includes all available networks in the 192.168.8.0/21 network?
• 192.168.8.0/24 - 192.168.14.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 - 192.168.15.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 - 192.168.16.0/24
• 192.168.8.0/24 - 192.168.17.0/24

23. Which two are best practices for creating a new IP addressing scheme for a network? (Choose two.)
• Plan and allow for significant growth.
• Assign addresses to the access layer before any other layer.
• Plan the entire addressing scheme before assigning any addresses.
• Begin with the access layer network summary addresses and work to the edge.
• Plan the addressing scheme to meet the current minimum requirement needs.
• Implement statically assigned addresses to all hosts in the distribution layer first.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet will provide sufficient addresses for the Production network with minimal waste?
• 172.16.0.192/26
• 172.16.0.192/27
• 172.16.0.224/26
• 172.16.0.160/26
• 172.16.0.144/27

25. A network designer is implementing a new network for a company. The designer is using all new Cisco equipment and has decided to select a hierarchical routing protocol for the network. The designer wishes to minimize traffic from routing updates but also needs fast routing convergence in the event of a topology change. Also, the existing IP addressing scheme requires that the selected protocol support VLSM. Which routing protocol should be chosen?
• BGP
• RIP v1
• RIP v2
• OSPF
• EIGRP

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